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There's no such thing as a "fixed focal zoom". A lens with a fixed focal length is also called a prime lens, and a zoom lens has a variable focal length. The fixed maximum aperture of some zoom lenses is another and unrelated feature.does a fixed focal zoom can serve as several primes since it got
fixed f and operate within 16-50mm range?
thanks..There's no such thing as a "fixed focal zoom". A lens with a fixed
focal length is also called a prime lens, and a zoom lens has a
variable focal length. The fixed maximum aperture of some zoom lenses
is another and unrelated feature.
true.. but what matters for me is aperture stay a constant and as large as 2.8 (of course when set) in entire 16-50 range.. i'm fine as long as i'm in control..BTW, these lenses do not have a fixed aperture. The aperture
specified is the maximum (largest) aperture of the lens, this can be
adjusted via the camera settings, the smallest setting will be in the
neighborhood of f/22-f/32.
Sorta wrong? The described lens (ie, 16-50mm f/2.8) doesn't have a fixed aperture. The f/2.8 indicates the widest aperture, but it will be able to ALSO be stopped down, prolly to something like f/22. It would be much clearer if manufacturers and reviewers would use "16-50mm f/2.8-f/22" when describing this lens. For some reason, they think that ONLY the max aperture is important. It can get a bit more confusing when the lens is not a fixed max aperture type. In these instances the lens is commonly described as "16-50mm f/2.8-3.5" where f/3.5 is the max aperture at 50mm. Once you learn these conventions, it ceases to be confusing...i'm a newbie and not good with terminology and technical aspects..
what i meant was can a 16-50mm f/2.8 serve the need of a 40mm f/2.8
since it has fixed aperture and focal length in the 40mm range?
(am i still getting it wrong?)
Thanks Dave, but the Pentax DA* 16-50 f/2.8 has no review there.. May be because Pentax is not so popular as Canon and Nikon..Check Photozone.de for lens comparisons.
The proper term would be "constant maximum aperture", rather than "fixed aperture".thanks..
i'm a newbie and not good with terminology and technical aspects..
what i meant was can a 16-50mm f/2.8 serve the need of a 40mm f/2.8
since it has fixed aperture and focal length in the 40mm range?
(am i still getting it wrong?)
Consider that the 16-50mm is quite a bit larger and heavier than 40mm pancake you're comparing it to. Some people prefer the handling of the prime lens over the zoom. For instance, if you were going to shoot street photography the 40 or a similar lens, 35, 43, 50 etc, would be much less intrusive to the subject.Thanks heaps mike.. thats what i wanted to know.. I'm thinking of
buying the Pentax DA* 16-50 f/2.8 for the K20D than going for a 40mm
f/2.8 and more primes covered by the 16-50 range..
Yes, that's an important feature. But describing it as in "...a 16-50mm f/2.8...has fixed aperture..." is poor use of language. Consider that a 16-50mm f/2.8-3.5 also has a constant aperture at f/3.5...constant is the preferred terminology.true.. but 16-55m f/2.8 stays constant through the entire range if i
set it to be so.. that's what matters to me...
HIif we compare 16-50mm f/2.8 zoom lens and a 40m f/2.8 or 50mm f/2.8
prime.
does a fixed focal zoom can serve as several primes since it got
fixed f and operate within 16-50mm range?
Apologies if you were offended by my clarification of terminology here http://forums.dpreview.com/forums/read.asp?forum=1002&message=29804410some people just go on criticizing the bad usage of photography
terminology, yet not giving any constructive input.