Simon Devlin wrote:
Do all aperture values for any lens let in the same amount of light?
The answer is probably no!
For example, a Pentax f/1.4 lens at f/4 allows a greater quantity of light than say a mobile phone lens @ f/4?
Surely this is what we pay the extra money for and not just the ability to have a higher aperture, blurring out the foreground/background and bokeh benefits!
I just need the clarification!
OK. I didn't read every answer but it seems no one has explained why it is f/
f/ is focal length divided by. When lenses were simple the distance of the apperture from the film was the focal length (at least when the lens was focused at infinity and close enough the rest of the time).
If you had an 18mm lens the apperture would be a lot closer to the film than with a 250mm lens, so it needed a bigger hole. If it was twice as far away the hole needs to be 4 times the area (because the area it spreads out increases as a square law), but the twice the diameter. In other words if you keep the ratio of the focal length to apperture diameter the same for all your lenses you have and identical level of light reaching the film.
Early lens appertures had a scale but didn't have fixed positions, later ones got fixed stops at multiples of square-root 2, hence 2, 2.8, 4 , 5.6, 8 etc which is where we've come to talk about halving or doubling of light as a "stop"
So far as the the phone question is concerned there is an general equation
(1/f^2) * Time * ISO = k / (Reflectance * Illuminance)
where f is the apperture, Time is the shutter speed, ISO is the speed rating and K is a constant. There is actually a fixed value of K if illumance is in Lux. Generally the apperture is correctly calculated and the ISO fiddled to give correct exposure.
With mobile phone cameras the focal length is so short that f/4 means a very small diameter of glass where f/4 on a 300mm lens is really quite wide.