JustinRebbert
Forum Enthusiast
There’s something I’ve been wondering about the theory and math behind constant f/stop zoom lenses. I apologize in advance that this is going to be a rather lengthy and technical post.
The f/stop value of a lens isn’t an actual measurement; rather, it’s a ratio. Specifically, the ratio of focal length to aperture diameter. So for example if you have a 100mm lens that has a maximum f/stop value of f/2, you can calculate that the actual maximum aperture diameter would be 50mm. You will sometimes see the f/stop value correctly presented as an actual ratio, such as 2.8:1, which means 2.8 units of focal length for one unit of aperture diameter.
If you do that math on an opening with a diameter of 50mm, you can calculate that the area of that aperture is around 1963.5mm^2.
Now consider the same 100mm lens at f/2.8. We can calculate that the aperture diameter would be around 35.71mm, the the area would be around 1001.8mm^2. This approximately corresponds to the concept that each whole f/stop value lets in half as much light as the previous one, since a hole of a particular size will let half as much light through as a hole that’s twice its size (in area). (Those two areas aren’t exactly double or half of each other probably due to rounding errors with the f/stop values.)
So far, all of this makes sense.
Here’s what I don’t understand: How can a zoom lens have a constant maximum f/stop value?
Remember that the f/stop value is the ratio of focal length to aperture diameter. If the focal length changes but the aperture remains the same, the ratio, the f/stop value, will change.
I would think that the aperture of a lens can open up to some particular maximum diameter, and I would further think that it can remain opened to that diameter regardless of the focal length of the lens. And mathematically, this means that the ratio of focal length to aperture diameter should change as the focal length changes while the aperture diameter remains the same. Consider a 70-200mm f/2.8 lens. 70mm at f/2.8 calculates to an aperture diameter of 25mm, and if that’s as wide as it can open, then at 200mm that would work out to f/8. On the other hand, 200mm at f/2.8 calculates to an aperture diameter of 71.4mm, and if it’s that wide at 70mm, that would work out to an astonishing f/0.98!
The concept of the f/stop value being the ratio of focal length to aperture diameter is correct. The math is correct, allowing for rounding errors. It does not make sense that the actual aperture diameter of a zoom lens would change as the lens is zoomed in or out. Yet zoom lenses with constant maximum f/stop values do exist.
How is this possible? What have I misunderstood?
The f/stop value of a lens isn’t an actual measurement; rather, it’s a ratio. Specifically, the ratio of focal length to aperture diameter. So for example if you have a 100mm lens that has a maximum f/stop value of f/2, you can calculate that the actual maximum aperture diameter would be 50mm. You will sometimes see the f/stop value correctly presented as an actual ratio, such as 2.8:1, which means 2.8 units of focal length for one unit of aperture diameter.
If you do that math on an opening with a diameter of 50mm, you can calculate that the area of that aperture is around 1963.5mm^2.
Now consider the same 100mm lens at f/2.8. We can calculate that the aperture diameter would be around 35.71mm, the the area would be around 1001.8mm^2. This approximately corresponds to the concept that each whole f/stop value lets in half as much light as the previous one, since a hole of a particular size will let half as much light through as a hole that’s twice its size (in area). (Those two areas aren’t exactly double or half of each other probably due to rounding errors with the f/stop values.)
So far, all of this makes sense.
Here’s what I don’t understand: How can a zoom lens have a constant maximum f/stop value?
Remember that the f/stop value is the ratio of focal length to aperture diameter. If the focal length changes but the aperture remains the same, the ratio, the f/stop value, will change.
I would think that the aperture of a lens can open up to some particular maximum diameter, and I would further think that it can remain opened to that diameter regardless of the focal length of the lens. And mathematically, this means that the ratio of focal length to aperture diameter should change as the focal length changes while the aperture diameter remains the same. Consider a 70-200mm f/2.8 lens. 70mm at f/2.8 calculates to an aperture diameter of 25mm, and if that’s as wide as it can open, then at 200mm that would work out to f/8. On the other hand, 200mm at f/2.8 calculates to an aperture diameter of 71.4mm, and if it’s that wide at 70mm, that would work out to an astonishing f/0.98!
The concept of the f/stop value being the ratio of focal length to aperture diameter is correct. The math is correct, allowing for rounding errors. It does not make sense that the actual aperture diameter of a zoom lens would change as the lens is zoomed in or out. Yet zoom lenses with constant maximum f/stop values do exist.
How is this possible? What have I misunderstood?

