DerekSurfs
Senior Member
Hi Nate,Newb/dumb question relating to clear aperture; does stopping a lens down reduce the clear aperture as equally as if the lens' fully open aperture was where it's stopped down to? ie: does stopping a 35mm f/1.4 lens down to f/2 equate its light gathering capacity to a 35mm f/2 lens?
Thanks,
Nate
Nice to see other newbies asking questions on here as well. Based on the formulas used by lonelyspeck and Roger's website, it would seem that it does reduce the clear aperture. And if that is so, it does beg the question, 'do I really need a 1.4 aperture lens' if I am really going to be shooting at f2 or f2.8? I know there are other benefits to stopping like such as removing aberrations and improving sharpness. And that is why some do it for their astro work. But still, its a valid question.
Case in point, I was shooting the night sky this week next to a guy who had just purchased all of this high end gear for night photography. He even had a gigapan which automatically takes the panos for him. So, he was taking 30+ shot panos with apparent ease using an f1.8 55mm prime lens. However, toward the end of the night I asked what aperture he was shooting at and he said 2.8! It was then that I couldn't help but think, isn't this the same as shooting with 24-70mm 2.8 lens at 55mm? Now of course there are other lens differences depending on what their individual characteristics are. But what if a zoom such as the Tamron 15-30mm f2.8, Canon 24-70mm L f/2.8 or some other zoom was used which is just a sharp at 2.8 with well behaved coma, CA, etc..? Is it basically the same as shooting astro with that high end prime?
That is also the same general photography rationale for using high quality zooms over primes such as the new Sigma 18-35mm f/1.8 or Canon 24-70mm f/2.4 as long as one is ok with shooting at those apertures for their base.
Derek
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