I'm just about to buy myself my first dslr. Part of my reasoning for this is because it's virtually impossible to get a limited depth-of-field effect with my existing, built-in-lens camera.
I had great fun playing with a 35mm SLR using a fast 50mm prime and was after the same sort of thing.
However, do I buy myself the 50mm f1.8 or a 35mm f2?
I've heard everyone rave about what a bargain the 50mm is. It's not quite such a bargain in the UK (It's priced at £99, making it nearly twice as expensive as in the US, based on current exchange rates), but is still pretty cheap.
The 35mm would give me a field of view equivalent to a conventional 35mm film + 50mm prime set-up, though.
So my two questions are:
Why was a 50mm prime the stock lens for much film photography? If it was because it gave a useful field of view, then the 35mm f2 lens will be more useful, won't it?
Would I be right in saying the shorter focal length of the 35mm lens (and the slightly less open apperture), mean that I won't get quite such a promounced depth of field effect as on the 50mm lens, assuming the subject to be the same distance from me? In which case, would paying more than twice as much money to buy the 35mm f2D mean I actually sacrifice some of the pronounced depth of field effect that I'm buying a dslr for?
I had great fun playing with a 35mm SLR using a fast 50mm prime and was after the same sort of thing.
However, do I buy myself the 50mm f1.8 or a 35mm f2?
I've heard everyone rave about what a bargain the 50mm is. It's not quite such a bargain in the UK (It's priced at £99, making it nearly twice as expensive as in the US, based on current exchange rates), but is still pretty cheap.
The 35mm would give me a field of view equivalent to a conventional 35mm film + 50mm prime set-up, though.
So my two questions are:
Why was a 50mm prime the stock lens for much film photography? If it was because it gave a useful field of view, then the 35mm f2 lens will be more useful, won't it?
Would I be right in saying the shorter focal length of the 35mm lens (and the slightly less open apperture), mean that I won't get quite such a promounced depth of field effect as on the 50mm lens, assuming the subject to be the same distance from me? In which case, would paying more than twice as much money to buy the 35mm f2D mean I actually sacrifice some of the pronounced depth of field effect that I'm buying a dslr for?