JoePhoto
Veteran Member
I understand what you are saying. "Man" is indeed injecting gases into the atmosphere. The question is if we are injecting more than "nature" itself. How much is ejected naturally with each volcano ??? I mentioned the trees, (which I did recently read they have just leaned is ejecting something they didn't seem to know about before.Joe,WHAT IS TRUE ??? ....
How should I know ... all I know is that we have ALWAYS had CYCLES
... it warms, and then it cools for awhile. Then warms again.
PLEASE explain to me how MAN is responsible for CYCLES for the last
MILLION years ???
Of course MAN is NOT responsible for CYCLES for the last MILLION
years.
We ALL know that the earth cycles through ice ages and back again.
That is not the question....the QUESTION is: " is man PARTIALLY
responsible for global warming"? Are we NOW making the earth
warmer than these "natural cycles" would alone?
Scientists know for CERTAIN that human activities are increasing
the levels of greenhouse gases like CO2, CH4, N2O, HFCs, PFCs and
SF6. It's well accepted that these greenhouse gases trap heat and
tend to warm the earth.
Exactly how much warming are we humans causing by these measurable
changes to the atmosphere?...scientists are less certain here, but
the scientific community agrees we are adding to the global warming
to SOME extent, especially in the last 50 years (yes there are
minor variations, but the trend is UP). That's all I was saying.
BUT .... that is not even the main point ...
IF you track the recent cycles, it does not correlate with mans activies.
It "warmed" from 1900 to 1940 ... which was indeed a time were industrialzing ....
BUT ... it then COOLED for the next 28 years ... BUT ... we did NOT stop "industrialziing" and POLUTING during that 28 year "Global Cooling" cycle.
In the 70's ... we did START to try to clean up the enviroment, and REDUCE POLLUTION ... but it started WARMING again ... while we were reducing pollution.
Now an argument could be made that it was too late, and it "warmed" after 1970 because of the prior pollution .... BUT ... BUT ..
How do they explain how/why it started warming (1900) before long term effects from the beginning of industrialization could have influenced the atmosphere. ... and most important ... WHY did it suddently reverse and start COOLING (1940) before any attempts at reducing pollution ???
In other words .... NONE of it CORRELATES if you honestly think about it !!!
I have another question ... but first a fact ... there is very little mixing between the atmospheres of the Northern and Southern hemispheres. (remember from your history books the crews of many early sailing ships died if they got too close to the Equator --- from the "calms" because there was no wind --- no wind means little interaction/mixing)
In the 80's, they were worried about an "Ozone-Hole" over the ANTARTIC .... but it was supposedly caused by PCP use in the Northern Hemisphere. I am simply confused why we did not have a hole over the US ... cause the US was by-far the biggest abuser of PCP's.
In other words ... they are saying that my wife, using hair-spray in my home state of Texas ... caused a humongous Ozone-Hole over the Antartic .... I am sorry ... I DON'T BUY IT !!!
Think about the credibility of the screamers ... they are the same ones that streamed Global Cooling in the 60's .... they KNEW they were RIGHT then .... but they WERN'T ... they were WRONG.
And they are LYING to you NOW ... but not being open about the FACT that the temperature rise has STOPPED for the last 8 years.
I mean, it "may" increase next year ... or it may not ... I don't know ... but at least they should ADMIT that the warming has stopped/slowed.
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Thanks for reading .... JoePhoto
( Do You Ever STOP to THINK --- and FORGET to START Again ??? )